Sunday, 26 August 2012

UPSC -Defence Services Exam -September 2011 Question Paper


Union Public Service Commission Combined Defence Services Exam   -September 2011 Question Paper  


GENERAL KNOWLEDGE  -1  

1.Sodium thiosulfate (Na2S2O3) solution is used in photography to
 (a) remove reduced silver  
(b) reduce silver bromile (AgBr) grain to silver   
(c) remove undecomposed AgBr as a soluble silver thiosulfate complex  
(d) convert the metallic silver to silver salt
2. Fire fly gives us cold light by virtue of the phenomenon of
(a) Fluorescence
(b) Phosphorescence
(c) Chemiluminescence
(d) Effervescence
3. The Iron Pillar near Qutub Minar draws attention of scientists due to its
(a) Antiquity (b) Glitter  (c) Hardness (d) Rustlessness
4. Sacrificial anode protects iron of ships, underground pipelines, etc. from rusting, a process known as cathodic protection. Which one of the following anode?
(a) Tin (b) Zinc (c)Magnesium  (d)Aluminium
5. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
             List I                                                                  List II
            (Acid)                                                                (Source)
(A) Lactic acid                                                          (1) Tamarind
(B) Tartaric acid                                                        (2) Orange
(C) Oxalic acid                                                          (3) Tomato
 (D) Citric acid                                                           (4)Sour Curd
Code:
        A                          B                 C               D
(a)    2                           3                 1                4
(b)    2                           1                  3               4
(c)    4                           3                  1               2
(d)    4                          1                   3               2
6.  Which one among the following will be absorbed fastest through the wall of digestive system?
(a) Black coffee a hot beverage
(b) DDT taken as a poison.
(c) Raw alcohol taken as a drink
(d) Ice cream as a dessert.
7. One of the occupational health hazards commonly faced by the workers of ceramics, pottery and glass industry is
(a) stone formation in gall bladder
(b) melanoma
(c) silicosis
(d) stone formation in kidney
8.  It has been observed that astronauts lose substantial quantity of calcium through urine during space flight. This is due to
(a) hypergravity
(b) microgravity
(c) intake of dehydrated food tablet
(d) low temperature in cosmos.
9. If we sprinkle common salt on an earthworms, if dies due to
(a)osmotic shock
(b) respiratory failure
(c) toxic effect of salt
(d) closure of pores of skin

10. Cutting and peeling of onions brings tears to the eyes because of the presence of
(a) sulphur in the cell
(b) carbon in the cell
(c) far in the cell
(d) aminoacid in the cell

11. The anti-malarial drug Quinine is made from a plant. The plant is
(a) Neem (b) Eucalyptus (c) Cinnamon (d) Cinchona

12.Endosulfon, which has been in news these days, is
  (a) a pesticide (b) a fertiliser (c) a sulfa drug  (d)  an antibiotic

13. The cat can survive fall from a height much more than human or any other animal. It   is because the cat
(a) can immediately adjust  itself to land on all four paws and bend the legs to absorb the impact of falling
(b)  has elastic bones
(c) has think and elastic skin
(d) also gets injury equally with other animals but has tremendous endurance, body resistance and speedy recovery
14.  Development of Goitre (enlarged thyroid gland) is mainly due to deficiency of
(a) Sodium  (b) Iodine  (c) Calcium  (d) Iron
15. To suspect HIV/AIDS in young individual, which one among the following symptoms is mostly associated with ?
(a)  Long standing jaundice and chronic liver disease
(b) Severe anaemia
(c)  Chronic diarrhoea
(d) Severe persistent headache
16. The purpose of Directive Principles of State Policy is to
(a) Lay down positive instructions which would guide State Policy at all levels.
(b) implement Gandhiji’s idea for a decentralised state
(c) Check the use of arbitrary powers by the government
(d) promote welfare of the backward sections of the society.
17.  Match List I and II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
             List I                                                                  List II
        (Five Year Plan)                                               (Emphasis)
(A)  First                                                         (1) Food security and women empowerment
(B) Second                                                      (2) Heavy industries
(C) Fifth                                                          (3) Agriculture and community development
 (D) Ninth                                                       (4)Removal of poverty
Code:
        A                          B                 C               D
(a)    1                           2                  4               3
(b)    1                           4                  2               3
(c)    3                           2                  4               1
(d)    3                          4                   2               1

18.   Consider the following statements about Sinking Fund:
(1) It is a method of repayment of public debt.
(2)  It is created by the government out of budgetary revenue every year. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only  (c) Both 1 and 2  (d) Neither 1 nor 2

19.  When you pull out the plug connected to an electrical appliance, you often observe a spark. To which property of the appliance is this related?
(a) Resistance (b) Inductance (c) Capacitance (d) Wattage

20.  The focal length of a convex lens  is
 (a) the same for all colours
(b) shorter for blue light that for red
(c) shorter for red light than for blue
(d) maximum for yellow light

21.If the door of a running refrigerator in a closed room is kept open, what will be the net effect of the room?
(a) It will cool the room
(b) It will heat the room
(c) It will make no difference on the average
(d) It will make the temperature go up and down

22.When a ball drops on to the floor it bounces. Why does it bounce?
 (a) Newton’s third law implies that for every action (drop) there is a reaction (bounce)
(b)  File floor exerts a force on the ball during the impact
(c) The floor is perfectly rigid
(d)  The floor hears up on impact
23.  Renewable energy can be obtained from
(a) Fossils (b) Radioactive elements (c) Biomass (d) Natural gas
24.  A body has a mass of 6kg on the Earth, when measured on the Moon, its mass would be
(a) nearly1kg (b) less than1 kg (c) less than 6 kg (d) 6 kg
25. Which one among the following is not included in the basic functions of operating system?
(a) Job control
(b) Job scheduling
(c) Memory management
(d) Data management
26. Transformer is a kind of appliance that can
 (1) increase power (2) increase power  (3) decrease voltage (4) measure current and voltage
 Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a)1 and 4 (b) 4 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 2, 3 and 4
 27.  What is the main constituent of a pearl?
(a) Calcuim carbonate and magnesium carbonate
(b) Calcium  sulphate only
(c) Calcium oxide and calium sulphate
(d) Calcium carbonate only
28. From which one among the following water sources, the water is likely to be contaminated with fluoride?
(a) Ground water (b) River water (c) Pond water  (d) Rain water
29. Which one among the following will you put into pure water in order to pass electric current through it?
(a) Kerosene (b) Mustard oil (c) Lemon juice (d) Sugar
30. Gypsum(CaSO4.2H2O) is added to clinker during cement manufacturing to
 (a) Decrease the rate of setting of cement (b) bind the particles of calcium silicate
 (c) Facilitate the formation of colloidal gel (d) impart strength to cement
31. Which of the following statements are correct?
(1) The global economy relied on oil for much of the 20th century as a portable and indispensable fuel.
(2) The immense wealth associated with oil generates political struggles to control it.
(3) History of petroleum is also the history of war and struggle.
(4)Nowhere is this more obviously the case of war and struggle than in West Asia and Central America.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
32.Which one among the following is not guaranteed by the Constitution of India?
(a) Freedom to move freely throughout the country.
(b) Freedom to assemble peacefully without arms
(c) Freedom to own, acquire and dispose of property anywhere in the country
(d) Freedom to practice any trade or profession
33. Which is the following statements is/are correct/
Under the provisions of Article 200 of the Constitution of India, the Governor of a state may:
(1) withhold assent to a Bill passed by the state legislature.
(2)  reserve the Bill passed by the state legislature for consideration of the President.
(3) return the Bill, other than a money Bill, for reconsideration of the legislature.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only  (b)1 and 2 only (c) Both 2 and 3 only
 (d)  1, 2 and 3
34. Which of the following are envisaged as being part of the ‘Right against Exploitation’ in the Constitution of India?
1  Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour.
2. Abolition of untouchability.
3. Protection of the interests of the minorities.
4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a)1 and 2  (b) 1 and 3 (c)1 and 4  (d)2, 3 and 4
35. In which one of the following cases the Supreme court of India gave verdicts which have direct bearing on the Centre-State relations?
(a) Keshavananda Bharati case
(b) Vishakha case
(c)S.R. Bommai Case
(d) Indira Sawhney case
36. Consider the following statements about the power of the President of India
1.The president can direct that any matter  on which decision has been taken by a Minister should be placed before the Council of Ministers.
2. The President can call all information relating to proposals for legislation.
3. The President has the right to address and send messages to either House of the Parliament.
4. All decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration o the Union must be communicated to the President.
Which of the statements given above are correct
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
 (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only (d)1, 2, 3 and 4


37. With reference to the conduct of government business in the Parliament of India, the term ‘closure’ refers to
(a) suspension of debate at the termination of a day’s sitting  of the Parliament.
(b) a rule of legislative procedure under which further debate on a motion can be halted
(c) the termination of a parliamentary session
(d) refusal on the part of the government to have the opposition look at important documents
38. India’s market regular SEBI is on course to relax investment norms for sovereign wealth funds, the investment vehicles which are directly    controlled by the government of a country. The main reason behind this more is
(a) the desire of the government of India to attract more foreign investment
 (b) pressure by foreign governments on India to execute specific mutual agreements on financial services
(c) SEBI’S desire to create a more level playing field for foreign investors
(d) RBI’s relevant directives to SEBI
39. a recent survey (by Bloomberg) shows that the USA, has fallen behind emerging markets in Brazil, china and India as the preferred place to invest. Why is it so?
(1) Unstable economic situation of the USA, which the global investors feel not likely to improve in the near future
(2) Global investors are finding Brazil, China and India to be actually more  amenable to foreign investment.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
 (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
 (d) Neither 1 nor 2.
40. According to the Administrative Tribunal Act 1985, the Central Administrative Tribunal adjudicates the disputes and complaints with respect to the service of persons who are
(a) appointed to public services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union  except members of the defence forces
(b) official and servants of the Supreme Court or any High Courts
(c) members of the Secretarial staff of the Parliament  or any state legislatures
 (d) members of the defence forces
41. Which of the following statements with respect t the judiciary in India is/are correct?
(1) Unlike the United States, India has not provided for a double system of courts.
(2) Under the Constitution of India, there is a single integrated system of courts for the Union as well as the states.
(3) The organization of the subordinate judiciary varies slightly from state to state.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only  (b) 1 and 2 only  (c) 1,2 and 3 (d)2 and 3 only.
42.  Which of the following committees are Committees of Parliament?
(1) Public Accounts Committee
 (2) Estimates Committee
 (3) committee on Public Undertakings
 Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only  (b) 1 and 3 only  (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 
43.  The Chief Election Commissioner of India holds office for  a period of
(a) six years
(b) during the pleasure of the President
(c) for six years or the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier
(d) for five years or the age of 60 years whichever is earlier

44. Consider the following statements:
(1)  In India the minimum denomination coin acceptable for transaction is 50 paise
(2) Coins below 50 paise is not a legal tender for payment.
 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only  (b)  2 only  (c)  Both1 and 2  (d) Neither 1nor 2.
45.  Which of the following statements about the Crime and Criminal Tracking Network System (CCTNS) is/are correct?
1. It will facilitate real time access of classified criminal data to the law enforcement authorities.
2. National Crime Record Bureau is the nodal agency mandated to implement  the network in all the states.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only  (b) 2 only  (c)  Both 1 and2  (d)Neither 1 nor 2.
46. Which of the statements given below about the Champaran Satyagraha is/are correct?
1. It was related to Indigo plantations.
2. It started because the European planters oppressed the Zamindars.
Select the correct answer using  the code given below:
(a) 1 only  (b) 2 only  (c)  Both 1 and2  (d)Neither 1 nor 2..
47. Consider the following statements about Ahmedabad Mill Strike of 1918:
1. It was related to a dispute between the workers and the European mill owners regarding hours of work.
2. Gandhiji advised the workers to go on strike.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only  (b) 2 only  (c)  Both 1 and2  (d)Neither 1 nor 2.
48. Which one among the following statements appropriately defines the term ‘drain theory’ as propounded by Dadabhaii Naoroji  in his work ‘poverty and un-British Rule in India’?
(a) That a part of India’s national wealth or total annual product was being exported to Britain for which India got no material returns
(b) That the resources of India were being utilized in the interest of Britain
(c) That British industrialists were being given an opportunity to invest in India under the protection of the imperial power
 (d)  That the British goods were being imported to India making the country poorer day by day

49. Which among the following was the most immediate factor the spread of Swadeshi and boycott of foreign goods during the first decade of the last century?
(a) Curzon’s design to curtail the sphere of local self-government
(b) Curzon’s attempt to control the universities
(c) Curzon’s partition of Bengal
(d) Curzon’s plan to curb the growing popularity of the Indian National Congress

50. Which of the following statements regarding Permanent Settlement is/are correct?
1. The Permanent Settlement was introduced in parts of Madras and Bombay Presidencies
2. The Permanent Settlement created a new class of landlords with hereditary rights on land
3. The landlords created by the Permanent Settlement could never be removed under any circumstance.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only  (b) 2 only  (c)   2 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3
51.  Gandhiji led the Indian nationalist movement from the front and his leadership was motivated by a wider philosophy he nurtured throughout the course of the movement. Which one among the following was a continuous movement based on this philosophy, and not a specific movement?
(a) Non –cooperation Movement
 (b) Swadeshi Movement
(c)  Quit India Movement
(d) Civil Disobedience Movement
52.  The Jainas believe that Jainism is the outcome of the teachings of twenty-four Tirthankaras. In the light of thi statement, which one among the following is correct of Vardhamana Mahavira?
(a) He was the first Tirthankara and the founder of Jainism
(b) He was the twenty-third Tirthankaras being considered legendary
(c) He was the last and twenty-fourth Tirthankara, whoo was not considered as the founder of the new faith but as a reformer of the existing religious sect.
 (d)He was not one of the twenty-four Tirthankaras
53. The earliest Buddhist literature which deal with the stories of the various birth of Buddha are
(a) Venaya pitakas
(b)  Sutta pitakas
(c) Abhidhamma pitakas
(d) Jatakas
54.  Which one among the following is not a characteristic of Rig-Vedic Aryans?
(a)They were auquainted with horses, chariots and the use of bronze
(b)  They were aquainted with the use of iron.
(c) They were acquainted with the cow, which formed the most important form of wealth
(d)  They were acquainted with the use of copper and the modern ploughshare.
55. Which one among the following statements about United Nations organs is correct?
(a)Decisions of the General Assembly are binding on all members
(b) The term of the non-permanent members of Security Council is for three years
(c) International Court of Justice has 20 Judges elected for a period of five years
(d) The Trusteeship Council has been suspended since 1 November 1994.
56. Which one among the following statements about South Asia is not correct?
(a) All the countries in south Asia are currently democracies
(b) SAFTA was signed at the 12th SAARC Summit in Islamabad
(c) The US and China play an influential role in the polities of some South Asian States
(d) Bangladesh and India have agreements on river water sharing and boundary  disputes.
57. Which among the following statements about European Union (EU) are correct?
 1. The EU is the world’s largest economy.
 2.  The EU has its own flag, anthem and currency.
 3. The EU’s combined armed forces are the second largest in the world.
 4. The EU has its own constitution.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a)1,2 and 3 (b) 1 and 4  (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 and 4 
58.  Which one among the following is the distinguishing factor between a pressure group and a political party?
(a) Pressure groups are confined to a few. While political parties involve larger number of people
(b) Pressure groups do not seek active political power, political parties do
(c) Pressure groups do not politically motivate people, while political parties do
(d) Political parties take political stance, while pressure groups do not bother about political issues
59.  Which one among the following pairs of level of government and legislative power is not correct matched?
(a)Central government : Union List
(b) Local government  : Residuary Powers
(c) State government : State List
(d) Central and State government: Concurrent List
60. There are different arguments given in favour of power sharing in a democractic political system. Which one of the following is not one of them?
(a) It reduces conflict among different communities
(b) Majority community does not impose its will on others
(c) Since all are affected by the policies of the government, they should be consulted in the governance of the country.
(d)It speed up the decision making process and improves the chances of unity of the country.

  ANSWERS





1.(c)2.(c)  3.(d)  4.(a) 5.(d) 6.(c) 7.(c) 8.(b) 9.(a) 10.(a)  11.(d) 12.(a) 13.(a) 14.(b) 15.(d) 16.(a) 17.(c) 18.(c) 19.(c) 20.(b) 21.(b) 22.(a) 23.(c) 24.(d) 25.(a) 26.(c) 27.(a) 28.(a) 29.(c) 30.(a) 31.(a) 32.(c) 33.(d) 34.(c) 35.(c) 36.(d) 37.(b) 38.(b) 39.(c) 40.(a) 41.(c) 42.(d) 43.(c) 44.(c) 45.(c) 46.(a) 47.(d) 48.(b) 49.(c) 50.(b) 51.(a) 52.(c) 53.(d) 54.(b) 55.(a) 56.(d) 57. (a) 58.(b) 59.(b) 60.(b) 


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