exam events: August 2012

Sunday, 26 August 2012

Common Entrance Test (CET) Maharashtra February 2011 Question Paper (Fully Solved) Continued from CSR.MBA, February 2012

Common Entrance Test (CET) Maharashtra February 2011

Question Paper (Fully Solved)

Continued from CSR.MBA, February 2012

Direction (Qs. 40 to 45): In each question below are three statements (for a set of question) followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three statements disregarding commonly known facts. Given answer---------

(1)if only conclusion I follows

(2) if only conclusion II follows

(3) if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows

(4) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows

(5) if both conclusion I and conclusion II follow

Directions (Qs.40 to 41):

Statements :

Some ball are points.

All points are pens.

All pens are gels.

40. Conclusions:

I. All balls are pens

II. All pens are balls.

41. Conclusions:

I. Atleast some balls are gels

II. All points are gels

Directions (Qs.42 to 43):

Statements :

No shoe is glove.

All gloves are caps.

All caps are jackets.

42. Conclusions:

I. Atleast some shoes are caps.

II atleast some jackets are gloves.

43. Conclusions:

I. No shoe is a jacket.

II. All gloves are jackets.

Directions (Qs.44 to 45):

Statements :

All countries are streets.

No street is flag.

Some flags are avenues.

44. Conclusions:

I. Some avenues being streets is a possibility.

II. Some countries are flags.

45. Conclusions:

I. No avenue is a country.

II. Some countries are flags.

Directions(Qs.46 to 57): In the following, a passage “view” and : “Counterview” on the same theme is given. Answer the questions based on these. Answer the questions based on these. Some words in the passage are printed in bold to help you located them while answering some of the questions.

View

First, the good news. With an average score of 42 in the quantitative section of the Graduate Management Admission Test (GMAT)-----used as selection criteria by B.Schools across the world----Indian students placed seventh globally, comfortably beating the global average of 37. Now for the bad; Chinese students topped the list, beating the Indians handily. Given the obsession with China in this country, this is likely to cause dark warning about Chinese students and corporate workforce outdoing their Indian counterparts. But this is a false alarm. Standardised test scores have very little bearing on the actual academic or professional quality of an individual.

To understand what these scores really signify, one could look at Battle Hymn Of The Tiger Mother, a book by Chinese American academic and author Amy Chua on how Chinese mothers raise successful kids. It is a somewhat alarming account of parental pressure. We have Chua forcing her seven-year-old daughter to practice piano for hours into the night without being allowed to get up for water or go to the bathroom. Or calling her “garbage” for being disrespectful-of throwing a birthday card that her daughter had made for her back and demanding a better one. If this is the traditional Chinese mode of parenting as
Chua says, it is too high a price to pay for a few more points on a standardized test.

Just as importantly, such fierce focus on a narrow area of student performance ignores many other skills that are equally useful in academic and profressional life.

Creativity, cognitive skills, the ability to understand social dynamics and work well with one’s peers-these cannot be discounted. And they are picked up through social engagement and flexible academic structures. Little wonder that despite having a far lower average on such tests than either India or China, it is still the US that churns out the largest number of top-notch entrepreneurs and researchers.

Counterview

Our ancestors invented the zero and that’s just where we might end up if we continue to be beaten in mathematics by not only East Asians, but also people not traditionally thought of as numerically outstanding, such as Trucks and Israelis. Nor is it any comfort that Indians do considerably better than most nationalities including Americans because of the Indian test-takers’s profile.

They belong to our elite----at least economically since they can afford to go abroad—and benefit from this country’s best. They are far more focusssed than, for instance Americans, for a variety of reasons. Most significantly, about 60% of Indian GNAT test-takers are engineers by training as opposed to the global average of 15%. This means that Indians have the advantage of background, focus ad training. Despite this they are beaten by people statistically unlikely to be engineers, relatively unmovitated and most likely not hailing from the economic elite in their own countries.

This is deeply troubling because it signals a skills deficit produced almost certainly by the shortcomings of our education system and this skills deficit threatens our development. Without highly trained engineers, it is unlikely that India will ever be able to build the massive infrastructure projects needed to lift the masses out of humiliating poverty. The goals might have changed from dams to nuclear power plants, but both still require people highly competent in maths. Do we want to wind up like the UK and US where engineering jobs are the hardest to fill because students flock to the humanities? Our poverty ensures we cannot afford such luxuries. Numerical skills are an essential complement to literacy. To be second rate in this area is to lose out on an essential ingredient of national competitiveness.

46. Which of the following is the main point in the Counterview?

(1) India invented zero and we should keep that historical position by doing well in numerical skills

(2) If US or UK scores higher than India it is OK But, China?

(3) In spite of the elitist profile of our test takers and majority of them being engineers, we have not scored will.

(4) In spite of our education system being better than that of other countries, we have scored low

(5)With this low rank, we shall not be able to produce top-notch researchers

47. According to the view, parental pressure--------------

(1) helps in overall development

(2) helps in producing researchers

(3) helps in achieving success in some limited areas

(4) does not help in achieving success in any area

(5) helps in immigrant families

48. Which of the following has the same meaning as the phrase ‘bearing on’ as used in the View?

(1) refer to

(2) concern for

(3) cover on

(4) load off

(5) related to

49. Which of the following has the same meaning as “ flock to” as used in the counterview?

(1) fight for

(2) collect to

(3) master at

(4) opt for

(5) score high

50. Which of the following in indicated in both----the view and the counterview?

(1) US has scored lower than India

(2) The global average score is 37

(3) The Indian test takers’ profile is different than that of other countries

(4) Low score is a matter of concern for India

(5) Turkey has scored higher than US

51. Which of the following would be true of Turks? Their average score would be-------(1) higher than that of Israelis

(2) lower than that of Americans

(3) lower than that of Indians

(4) more than 42

(5)more than 53

52. According for the View, the bad news is/has--

(1) a cause for concern

(2) no cause for concern

(3) good for China

(4) a hidden meaning for local admission tests

(5) good for engineering graduates

53. Which of the following has the same meaning as the word “handily” as used in the View?

(1) hands down

(2) unexpectedly

(3) over the top

(4) awkwardly

(5) narrowly

54. The counterview indicates ------ that Indians have the advantage of background focus and training. Which of the following is referred to as “background”?

(1) Educational

(2) Economical

(3) Social

(4) Goal-orientation

(5) Parental mode

55. According to the Counterview, which of the following is expected?

(1) More students should opt for engineering subjects

(2) The GMAT score should not be taken as the be-all and end-all

(3) All Asians are expected to do equally well in quantitative skills

(4) The engineers are expected to do well in quantitative skills

(5)China is expected to do well in quantitative skills

56. Which of the following is an area of agreement between both the View and the Counterview?

(1) Indian must do better than at least Turks and Israelis

(2) India produces more number of entrepreneurs than China

(3) There are more engineering test-takers of GMAT from India than from any other country.

(4) Focussing only on quantitative section is like having a highly narrow view

(5) None of these

57. Which of the following is indicated in the View?

(1) Standardised test scores indicate success in a profession

(2) Academic scores do not predict professional success

(3) Standardised test scores do not predict professional success

(4) Creativity is more important than understanding social dymamics

(5) Chinese mode of parenting is better than the Indian way.

58. Rs.1950 is divided amongst three workers A,B and C such that 6 times A’s share I equal to 4 times B’s share which is equal to 8 times C’s share. How much did A get?

(1) Rs.600

(2) Rs.550

(3) Rs.900

(4) Rs.450

(5) None of these

ANSWERS

40.(4) 41. (5) 42. (2) 43. (2) 44. (1) 45. (4) 46. (1) 47. (3) 48. (5) 49. (4) 50. (3) 51. (2)

52. (3) 53. (2) 54. (1) 55. (4) 56. (4) 57. (3) 58. (1)

Union Public Service Commission Combined Defence Services Exam September 2011 Question Paper (Fully Solved) GENERAL KNOWLEDGE -2

Union Public Service Commission

Combined Defence Services Exam

September 2011 Question Paper

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE -2

61. Which of the following condition /condition must be fulfilled by the NRIs to be eligible to vote in elections in India?

1. They must be physically present in their place of origin to exercise their franchise.

2. NRIs whether they have acquired citizenship of other countries or not are eligible to vote.

3.Eligible NRIs have to register by filling up Form 6-A with electoral registration office.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)1,2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 only (d) 3 only

62. Which of the following statements regarding the United Nations Peacekeeping Force is/are correct

1. The first peacekeeping force was sent to Egypt.

2. Peacekeeping force is accountable to the Security Council.

3. First women peacekeeping force was sent by India to Liberia.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)1,2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only

63. The first effort at drafting a Domination Status Constitution for India was made is response to the

(a) Minto- morley Reforms

(b) Montague Chelmsford Reforms

(c)Simon Commission

(d)First Round Table Conference

64. The Kamraj plan was a plan formulated in 1963 by the then

(a) Union Cabinet Minister, whereby a new Constitution for the Indian National Congress was proposed

(b)Chief Minister of Madras, whereby the senior ministers were asked to leave government and work to rejuvenate the party.

(c)Chief Minister of Madras, whereby new set of principles for accepting donations for the party work was proposed

(d)Chief Minister of Madras to root out corruption from India

65. The Constitution of India divided the states of India in categories A,B,C and D in the year 1950. In the context which of the following statements is correct?

(a) The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of category A states. The Rajpramukh was the executive head of category B states. The Governor was the executive head of categories C and D states.

(b)The Rajpramukh was the executive head of category A states. The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of categories B and C states. The Governor was the executive head of the category D states

(c) The Governor was the executive head of category A states. The Rajpramukh was the executive head of category B states. The chief Commissioner was the executive head of categories C and D states

(d)The governor was the executive head of category A states. The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of category B states. The Rajpramukh was the executive head of categories C and D states

66. The Constituent Assembly of India was chosen on the basis of the provincial elections of 1941. With the withdrawal of te Muslim League from the Constituent Assembly, it turned our that majority of the Assembly members were also members of the congress. Under that circumstance, how was the Constituent Assembly given a broader social basis?

(a) By nominating independent members from various minority groups

(b) By nominating independent members from various caste and religious groups

(c)By nominating independent members different castes, groups and women and also by taking in representatives of the princely states and asking for written submission from the public at large

(d) By taking in representatives of the princely states and asking for written submission from the public at large

67. What was the ‘privy purse’ in the context of the history of Modern India?

(a) A purse given privately by one organisation to another

(b)A purse given by the government of India to dignitaries for service rendered

(d) A gift given by an erstwhile Prince of India to the Government of India.

68. Which one among the following was not a possible reason for the success of Nadir Shah’s military campaign in Delhi?

(a) Work Mughal Emperor

(b) Lack of strong defence in the North-West Frontier

(d) Use of superior military technology by the invading army

69. Which one among the following was not true about the Kerala king Martanda Varma?

(a) He ruled over Travancore

(b) He subdued the feudatories

(d) He organised a strong modern army

70. Which of the following was/were reason/reasons for the success of European trading companies in South India during the 17^th Century?

1. The presence of the Mughals in the south was not as much as in the north.

2. The Vijaya Nagar kingdom had been overthrown in the late 16^th Century.

3. The south had many small and weak states.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)1,2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 only

71. Which one among the following was a reason for which the French could not succeed in India in the 18^th Century?

(a) They sided with the weak Indian sides such as Chanda Sahib and Muzafar Jang.

(b) Dupleix was called back at a crucial time

(d) Their trading company was heavily dependent on the French Government.

72. Which one of the following was the result of the First Anglo-Maratha War of 1775-82?

(a) The British won the war

(b) The Marathas won the war

(d) It helped Hyder Ali to gather strength because the British and Marathas were engaged in a mutual war

73. Which one among the following is correct about the Doctrine of Lapse?

(a) It did not allow the Indian rulers to adopt any heir

(b) It did not allow an adopted heir to rule a state after the death of the ruler

(d) It made the annexation of Indian state compulsory if the adoption of heir had not been approved by the British authorities

74. In 1856 Awadh would not have been annexed with the British Empire if the Nawab of Awadh had

(a) allied with the British

(b) not refused to introduce reforms as suggested by the British

(d) a natural heir

75. Which of the statements given below about Vivekananda are correct?

1. He believed that Vedanta was fully rational

2. He criticized his countrymen for having lost touch with the outside world.

3.He condemned the caste system.

4. He considered the Veda to be infallible.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)1,2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c)1, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 2 only

76. Consider the following information and identify from the code given below the legendary Hollywood actress who is also remembered as a champion for a number of charitable causes, notably the fight against AIDS:

She appeared in more than 50 films, and was three Oscars including one for performance in ‘Butterfield 8’ and another for ‘Who’s Afraid of Virginia Woolf?’ The London-born actress was a star at age 12, a bride and a divorce at 18, a screen goddess at 19 and a widow at 26.

Code:

(a) Ingrid Bergman

(b) Elizabeth Taylor

(d) Nicole Kidman

77. Consider the following statements:

1. National cadet corps (NCC) is a pre-independence organization.

2. The motto of NCC is ‘Unity and discipline’.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1only (b) 2oonly (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

78. On 15^th March 2011, foreign ministers of G-8 nations failed to reach an agreement on military action against Libya because:

1. Germany and Russia blocked flight restrictions sought by Britain and France

2. French attempt for a no-fly zone could not reach consensus

3. United nations has been non-supportive for any kind of action against Libya

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)1,2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only (c)2 and 3 only (d) 1 only

79. South Pacific island nation Samoa, positioned to the east of the International Date Line, on May 2011 decided to forego a day and shift to the time zone on its west. The reason for this shifting is to

(a) facilitate smooth internal administration throughout the country

(b) attain political stability in the country

(d) promote tourism industry in the country

80. Which of the following changes were brought in Nepal after the end of monarchy/

1. The Singha Durbar (Lion Palace) has become official seat of government of Nepal

2.Narayanhity royal Palace has been turned into a public museum.

3.King’s portrait in Nepalese banknotes, was replaced by the image of Pashupatinath Temple.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)1,2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 only

81. Which of the following changes have been brought in Egypt after the recent popular uprising that overthrew President Hosni Mubarak ?

1. Adopting a new constitution.

2. Reducing presidential term from 6 years to 4 years

3. Limiting the president to two terms.

4. Presidential candidate must be over 40 years.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)1, and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 3 and 4 only

82. Which of the following statements regarding Global-INK (Indian Network of Knowledge) is not correct?

(a) It is an ICT (Information and communication Technology) enabled platform for next generation knowledge management

(b) The network will serve as a strategic ‘virtual think tank’

(c) The outcome target will be the germination of ideas on development and articulating and mapping out solutions through innovation and technological interventions

(d) The network is being developed by Reliance communication

83. In the era of globalisation, international migration is one of the biggest challenges of 21^st century. To deal with this, which of the following steps have been taken by the Government of India?

1. Establishment of 24/7 helpline to provide information to jobseekers.

2. Undertaking steps to ratify the UN Convention on Transnational Organisation crime and its protocols.

3. Implementing e-Governance in emigration management to detect instances of misrepresentation, forgery, etc. through real time validation of information on public-private partnership basis.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)1,2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only

84. Which one of the following teams won the maximum number of gold medals in the 34^th National Games 2011 held in Jharkhand?

(a) Manipur (b) Services (c) Haryana (d) Maharashtra

85. Who among the following was chosen for the Dadasaheb Phalke Award for the year 2010?

(a) K.Balachander

(b) D.Ramanaidu

(d) Adoor Gopalakrishnan

86. Consider the following statements about National Knowledge Commission:

1. It is an advisory body to the Prime Minister constituted as per the provisions of the constitution of India.

2. Mr. Sam pitroda is the chairman of the Commission.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

87. The ‘Shillong Declaration’, in news recently, was on

(a) food security act

(b) Right to Education Act

(d) Right to Information act

88. In the case of nuclear disaster, which of the following options for cooling the nuclear reactors may be adopted?

1. Pumping of water to the reactors.

2. Use of boric acid.

3. taking out the fuel rods and keeping them in a cooling pond.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)1,2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 3 only

89. Consider the following statements about Euthanasia:

1. It refers to the practice of ending the life in a manner which relieves pain and suffering

2. In the case involving Aruna shanbaug, the Supreme Court of India has suggested that passive Euthanasia be legalised through the Supreme Court monitored mechanism only.

3. Active voluntary Euthanasia is legal in Belgium, Luxembourg and the Netherlands.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1,2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only

90. Which one among the following is not an important factor of climate of an area?

(a) Latitude (b) Longitude (c) Altitude (d) Distance from the sea

91. The broken hills famous for zinc and lead are located in

(a) Turkey (b) France (c) Germany (d) Australia

92. Kanha National Park belongs to which one among the following biogeographical areas in the world?

(a) Tropical sub-humid Forests

(b) Tropical Humid Forests

(d) Tropical Moist Forests

93. ‘EI Nino’ associated with the formation of the South West Monsoon of India is

(a) an abnormally warm ocean current

(b) a periodic warm air mass

(d) a periodic law pressure centre

94. The thermal equator is found

(a) at the equator

(b) south of the geographical equator

(d) at the Tropic of Cancer

95. A nautical mile is equal to

(a) 5060 feet (b) 5280 feet (c) 6060 feet (d) 6080 feet

96. Horse latitudes lie within the atmospheric pressure belts of

(a) Polar high (b) Equatorial low (c) Sub-tropical high (d) Sub-polar low

97. The warm and dry winds that blow down the steep valleys in Japan are called

(a) Zonda (b) Yamo (c) Tramontanc (d) Santa Ana

98. Which of the following statements regarding red soils of India is/are correct?

1. The colour of the soil is red due to ferric oxide content.

2. Red soils are rich in lime, humus and potash.

3. They are porous and have friable structure.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c)2 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3

99. According to the Census 2011, which one among the following Union Territories has the least population?

(a) Daman and Diu

(b) Dadra and Nagar Haveli

(d) Puducherry

100. Arrange the following oil refineries of India from west to east:

1. Koyali 2. Bongalgaon 3. Mathura 4. Haldia

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)1-2 -3-4 (b) 1-3-4- 2 (c)3-1-2-4 (d)2-4-3-1

ANSWERS

61.(b) 62.(c) 63.(a) 64.(b) 65.(c) 66.(d) 67.(c) 68.(d) 69.(c) 70.(c) 71.(b) 72.(c) 73.(d) 74.(a) 75.(c) 76.(b) 77.(b) 78.(b) 79.(c) 80.(b) 81.(b) 82.(d) 83.(a) 84.(b) 85.(a) 86.(b) 87.(d) 88.(b) 89.(b) 90.(b) 91.(d) 92.(d) 93.(a) 94.(c) 95.(d) 96.(c) 97.(b) 98.(b) 99.(c) 100.(b)

UPSC -Defence Services Exam -September 2011 Question Paper

Union Public Service Commission Combined Defence Services Exam -September 2011 Question Paper

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE -1

1.Sodium thiosulfate (Na2S2O3) solution is used in photography to

(a) remove reduced silver

(b) reduce silver bromile (AgBr) grain to silver

(d) convert the metallic silver to silver salt

2. Fire fly gives us cold light by virtue of the phenomenon of

(a) Fluorescence

(b) Phosphorescence

(d) Effervescence

3. The Iron Pillar near Qutub Minar draws attention of scientists due to its

(a) Antiquity (b) Glitter (c) Hardness (d) Rustlessness

4. Sacrificial anode protects iron of ships, underground pipelines, etc. from rusting, a process known as cathodic protection. Which one of the following anode?

(a) Tin (b) Zinc (c)Magnesium (d)Aluminium

5. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I List II

(Acid) (Source)

(A) Lactic acid (1) Tamarind

(B) Tartaric acid (2) Orange

(D) Citric acid (4)Sour Curd

Code:

A B C D

(a) 2 3 1 4

(b) 2 1 3 4

(d) 4 1 3 2

6. Which one among the following will be absorbed fastest through the wall of digestive system?

(a) Black coffee a hot beverage

(b) DDT taken as a poison.

(d) Ice cream as a dessert.

7. One of the occupational health hazards commonly faced by the workers of ceramics, pottery and glass industry is

(a) stone formation in gall bladder

(b) melanoma

(d) stone formation in kidney

8. It has been observed that astronauts lose substantial quantity of calcium through urine during space flight. This is due to

(a) hypergravity

(b) microgravity

(d) low temperature in cosmos.

9. If we sprinkle common salt on an earthworms, if dies due to

(a)osmotic shock

(b) respiratory failure

(d) closure of pores of skin

10. Cutting and peeling of onions brings tears to the eyes because of the presence of

(a) sulphur in the cell

(b) carbon in the cell

(d) aminoacid in the cell

11. The anti-malarial drug Quinine is made from a plant. The plant is

(a) Neem (b) Eucalyptus (c) Cinnamon (d) Cinchona

12.Endosulfon, which has been in news these days, is

(a) a pesticide (b) a fertiliser (c) a sulfa drug (d) an antibiotic

13. The cat can survive fall from a height much more than human or any other animal. It is because the cat

(a) can immediately adjust itself to land on all four paws and bend the legs to absorb the impact of falling

(b) has elastic bones

(d) also gets injury equally with other animals but has tremendous endurance, body resistance and speedy recovery

14. Development of Goitre (enlarged thyroid gland) is mainly due to deficiency of

(a) Sodium (b) Iodine (c) Calcium (d) Iron

15. To suspect HIV/AIDS in young individual, which one among the following symptoms is mostly associated with ?

(a) Long standing jaundice and chronic liver disease

(b) Severe anaemia

(d) Severe persistent headache

16. The purpose of Directive Principles of State Policy is to

(a) Lay down positive instructions which would guide State Policy at all levels.

(b) implement Gandhiji’s idea for a decentralised state

(d) promote welfare of the backward sections of the society.

17. Match List I and II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I List II

(Five Year Plan) (Emphasis)

(A) First (1) Food security and women empowerment

(B) Second (2) Heavy industries

(D) Ninth (4)Removal of poverty

Code:

A B C D

(a) 1 2 4 3

(b) 1 4 2 3

(d) 3 4 2 1

18. Consider the following statements about Sinking Fund:

(1) It is a method of repayment of public debt.

(2) It is created by the government out of budgetary revenue every year. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

19. When you pull out the plug connected to an electrical appliance, you often observe a spark. To which property of the appliance is this related?

(a) Resistance (b) Inductance (c) Capacitance (d) Wattage

20. The focal length of a convex lens is

(a) the same for all colours

(b) shorter for blue light that for red

(d) maximum for yellow light

21.If the door of a running refrigerator in a closed room is kept open, what will be the net effect of the room?

(a) It will cool the room

(b) It will heat the room

(d) It will make the temperature go up and down

22.When a ball drops on to the floor it bounces. Why does it bounce?

(a) Newton’s third law implies that for every action (drop) there is a reaction (bounce)

(b) File floor exerts a force on the ball during the impact

(d) The floor hears up on impact

23. Renewable energy can be obtained from

(a) Fossils (b) Radioactive elements (c) Biomass (d) Natural gas

24. A body has a mass of 6kg on the Earth, when measured on the Moon, its mass would be

(a) nearly1kg (b) less than1 kg (c) less than 6 kg (d) 6 kg

25. Which one among the following is not included in the basic functions of operating system?

(a) Job control

(b) Job scheduling

(d) Data management

26. Transformer is a kind of appliance that can

(1) increase power (2) increase power (3) decrease voltage (4) measure current and voltage

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a)1 and 4 (b) 4 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 2, 3 and 4

27. What is the main constituent of a pearl?

(a) Calcuim carbonate and magnesium carbonate

(b) Calcium sulphate only

(d) Calcium carbonate only

28. From which one among the following water sources, the water is likely to be contaminated with fluoride?

(a) Ground water (b) River water (c) Pond water (d) Rain water

29. Which one among the following will you put into pure water in order to pass electric current through it?

(a) Kerosene (b) Mustard oil (c) Lemon juice (d) Sugar

30. Gypsum(CaSO4.2H2O) is added to clinker during cement manufacturing to

(a) Decrease the rate of setting of cement (b) bind the particles of calcium silicate

31. Which of the following statements are correct?

(1) The global economy relied on oil for much of the 20^th century as a portable and indispensable fuel.

(2) The immense wealth associated with oil generates political struggles to control it.

(3) History of petroleum is also the history of war and struggle.

(4)Nowhere is this more obviously the case of war and struggle than in West Asia and Central America.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

32.Which one among the following is not guaranteed by the Constitution of India?

(a) Freedom to move freely throughout the country.

(b) Freedom to assemble peacefully without arms

(d) Freedom to practice any trade or profession

33. Which is the following statements is/are correct/

Under the provisions of Article 200 of the Constitution of India, the Governor of a state may:

(1) withhold assent to a Bill passed by the state legislature.

(2) reserve the Bill passed by the state legislature for consideration of the President.

(3) return the Bill, other than a money Bill, for reconsideration of the legislature.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only (b)1 and 2 only (c) Both 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

34. Which of the following are envisaged as being part of the ‘Right against Exploitation’ in the Constitution of India?

1 Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour.

2. Abolition of untouchability.

3. Protection of the interests of the minorities.

4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c)1 and 4 (d)2, 3 and 4

35. In which one of the following cases the Supreme court of India gave verdicts which have direct bearing on the Centre-State relations?

(a) Keshavananda Bharati case

(b) Vishakha case

(c)S.R. Bommai Case

(d) Indira Sawhney case

36. Consider the following statements about the power of the President of India

1.The president can direct that any matter on which decision has been taken by a Minister should be placed before the Council of Ministers.

2. The President can call all information relating to proposals for legislation.

3. The President has the right to address and send messages to either House of the Parliament.

4. All decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration o the Union must be communicated to the President.

Which of the statements given above are correct

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

37. With reference to the conduct of government business in the Parliament of India, the term ‘closure’ refers to

(a) suspension of debate at the termination of a day’s sitting of the Parliament.

(b) a rule of legislative procedure under which further debate on a motion can be halted

(d) refusal on the part of the government to have the opposition look at important documents

38. India’s market regular SEBI is on course to relax investment norms for sovereign wealth funds, the investment vehicles which are directly controlled by the government of a country. The main reason behind this more is

(a) the desire of the government of India to attract more foreign investment

(b) pressure by foreign governments on India to execute specific mutual agreements on financial services

(d) RBI’s relevant directives to SEBI

39. a recent survey (by Bloomberg) shows that the USA, has fallen behind emerging markets in Brazil, china and India as the preferred place to invest. Why is it so?

(1) Unstable economic situation of the USA, which the global investors feel not likely to improve in the near future

(2) Global investors are finding Brazil, China and India to be actually more amenable to foreign investment.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2.

40. According to the Administrative Tribunal Act 1985, the Central Administrative Tribunal adjudicates the disputes and complaints with respect to the service of persons who are

(a) appointed to public services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union except members of the defence forces

(b) official and servants of the Supreme Court or any High Courts

(d) members of the defence forces

41. Which of the following statements with respect t the judiciary in India is/are correct?

(1) Unlike the United States, India has not provided for a double system of courts.

(2) Under the Constitution of India, there is a single integrated system of courts for the Union as well as the states.

(3) The organization of the subordinate judiciary varies slightly from state to state.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1,2 and 3 (d)2 and 3 only.

42. Which of the following committees are Committees of Parliament?

(1) Public Accounts Committee

(2) Estimates Committee

(3) committee on Public Undertakings

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

43. The Chief Election Commissioner of India holds office for a period of

(a) six years

(b) during the pleasure of the President

(d) for five years or the age of 60 years whichever is earlier

44. Consider the following statements:

(1) In India the minimum denomination coin acceptable for transaction is 50 paise

(2) Coins below 50 paise is not a legal tender for payment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both1 and 2 (d) Neither 1nor 2.

45. Which of the following statements about the Crime and Criminal Tracking Network System (CCTNS) is/are correct?

1. It will facilitate real time access of classified criminal data to the law enforcement authorities.

2. National Crime Record Bureau is the nodal agency mandated to implement the network in all the states.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and2 (d)Neither 1 nor 2.

46. Which of the statements given below about the Champaran Satyagraha is/are correct?

1. It was related to Indigo plantations.

2. It started because the European planters oppressed the Zamindars.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and2 (d)Neither 1 nor 2..

47. Consider the following statements about Ahmedabad Mill Strike of 1918:

1. It was related to a dispute between the workers and the European mill owners regarding hours of work.

2. Gandhiji advised the workers to go on strike.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and2 (d)Neither 1 nor 2.

48. Which one among the following statements appropriately defines the term ‘drain theory’ as propounded by Dadabhaii Naoroji in his work ‘poverty and un-British Rule in India’?

(a) That a part of India’s national wealth or total annual product was being exported to Britain for which India got no material returns

(b) That the resources of India were being utilized in the interest of Britain

(c) That British industrialists were being given an opportunity to invest in India under the protection of the imperial power

(d) That the British goods were being imported to India making the country poorer day by day

49. Which among the following was the most immediate factor the spread of Swadeshi and boycott of foreign goods during the first decade of the last century?

(a) Curzon’s design to curtail the sphere of local self-government

(b) Curzon’s attempt to control the universities

(d) Curzon’s plan to curb the growing popularity of the Indian National Congress

50. Which of the following statements regarding Permanent Settlement is/are correct?

1. The Permanent Settlement was introduced in parts of Madras and Bombay Presidencies

2. The Permanent Settlement created a new class of landlords with hereditary rights on land

3. The landlords created by the Permanent Settlement could never be removed under any circumstance.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3

51. Gandhiji led the Indian nationalist movement from the front and his leadership was motivated by a wider philosophy he nurtured throughout the course of the movement. Which one among the following was a continuous movement based on this philosophy, and not a specific movement?

(a) Non –cooperation Movement

(b) Swadeshi Movement

(d) Civil Disobedience Movement

52. The Jainas believe that Jainism is the outcome of the teachings of twenty-four Tirthankaras. In the light of thi statement, which one among the following is correct of Vardhamana Mahavira?

(a) He was the first Tirthankara and the founder of Jainism

(b) He was the twenty-third Tirthankaras being considered legendary

(c) He was the last and twenty-fourth Tirthankara, whoo was not considered as the founder of the new faith but as a reformer of the existing religious sect.

(d)He was not one of the twenty-four Tirthankaras

53. The earliest Buddhist literature which deal with the stories of the various birth of Buddha are

(a) Venaya pitakas

(b) Sutta pitakas

(d) Jatakas

54. Which one among the following is not a characteristic of Rig-Vedic Aryans?

(a)They were auquainted with horses, chariots and the use of bronze

(b) They were aquainted with the use of iron.

(d) They were acquainted with the use of copper and the modern ploughshare.

55. Which one among the following statements about United Nations organs is correct?

(a)Decisions of the General Assembly are binding on all members

(b) The term of the non-permanent members of Security Council is for three years

(d) The Trusteeship Council has been suspended since 1 November 1994.

56. Which one among the following statements about South Asia is not correct?

(a) All the countries in south Asia are currently democracies

(b) SAFTA was signed at the 12^th SAARC Summit in Islamabad

(d) Bangladesh and India have agreements on river water sharing and boundary disputes.

57. Which among the following statements about European Union (EU) are correct?

1. The EU is the world’s largest economy.

2. The EU has its own flag, anthem and currency.

3. The EU’s combined armed forces are the second largest in the world.

4. The EU has its own constitution.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)1,2 and 3 (b) 1 and 4 (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 and 4

58. Which one among the following is the distinguishing factor between a pressure group and a political party?

(a) Pressure groups are confined to a few. While political parties involve larger number of people

(b) Pressure groups do not seek active political power, political parties do

(d) Political parties take political stance, while pressure groups do not bother about political issues

59. Which one among the following pairs of level of government and legislative power is not correct matched?

(a)Central government : Union List

(b) Local government : Residuary Powers

(d) Central and State government: Concurrent List

60. There are different arguments given in favour of power sharing in a democractic political system. Which one of the following is not one of them?

(a) It reduces conflict among different communities

(b) Majority community does not impose its will on others

(d)It speed up the decision making process and improves the chances of unity of the country.

ANSWERS

1.(c)2.(c) 3.(d) 4.(a) 5.(d) 6.(c) 7.(c) 8.(b) 9.(a) 10.(a) 11.(d) 12.(a) 13.(a) 14.(b) 15.(d) 16.(a) 17.(c) 18.(c) 19.(c) 20.(b) 21.(b) 22.(a) 23.(c) 24.(d) 25.(a) 26.(c) 27.(a) 28.(a) 29.(c) 30.(a) 31.(a) 32.(c) 33.(d) 34.(c) 35.(c) 36.(d) 37.(b) 38.(b) 39.(c) 40.(a) 41.(c) 42.(d) 43.(c) 44.(c) 45.(c) 46.(a) 47.(d) 48.(b) 49.(c) 50.(b) 51.(a) 52.(c) 53.(d) 54.(b) 55.(a) 56.(d) 57. (a) 58.(b) 59.(b) 60.(b)