Union Public Service Commission Combined Defence Services Exam September 2011 Question Paper (Fully Solved) GENERAL KNOWLEDGE -2

Union Public Service Commission

Combined Defence Services Exam

September 2011 Question Paper

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE  -2 

 61. Which of the following condition /condition must be fulfilled by the NRIs to be eligible to vote in elections in India?

1. They must be physically present in their place of origin to exercise their franchise.

2. NRIs whether they have acquired citizenship of other countries or not are eligible to vote.

3.Eligible NRIs have to register by filling up Form 6-A with electoral registration office.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)1,2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only  (c) 2 only (d) 3 only 

62. Which of the following statements regarding the United Nations Peacekeeping Force is/are correct

1. The first peacekeeping force was sent to Egypt.

2. Peacekeeping force is accountable to the Security Council.

3. First women peacekeeping force was sent by India to Liberia.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)1,2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only  (c) 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only

63. The first effort at drafting a Domination Status Constitution for India was made is response to the

(a) Minto- morley Reforms

(b) Montague Chelmsford Reforms

(c)Simon Commission

(d)First Round Table Conference

64. The Kamraj plan was a plan formulated in 1963 by the then

(a) Union Cabinet Minister, whereby a new Constitution for the Indian National Congress was proposed

(b)Chief Minister of Madras, whereby the senior ministers were asked to leave government and work to rejuvenate the party.

(c)Chief Minister of Madras, whereby new set of principles for accepting donations for the party work was proposed

(d)Chief Minister of Madras to root out corruption from India

65. The Constitution of India divided the states of India in categories A,B,C and D in the year 1950. In the context which of  the following statements is correct?

(a) The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of category A states. The Rajpramukh was the executive head of category B states. The Governor was the executive head of categories C and D states.

(b)The Rajpramukh was the executive head of category A states. The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of categories B and C states. The Governor was the executive head of the category D states

(c) The Governor was the executive head of category A states. The Rajpramukh was the executive head of category B states. The chief Commissioner was the executive head of categories C and D states

(d)The governor was the executive head of category A states. The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of category B states. The Rajpramukh was the executive head of categories C and D states

66. The Constituent Assembly of India was chosen on the basis of the provincial elections of 1941. With the withdrawal of te Muslim League from the Constituent Assembly, it turned our that majority of the Assembly members were also members of the congress. Under that circumstance, how was the Constituent Assembly given a broader social basis?

(a) By nominating independent members from various minority groups

(b) By nominating independent members from various caste and religious groups

(c)By nominating independent members different castes, groups and women and also by taking in representatives of the princely states and asking for written submission from the public at large

(d) By taking in representatives of the princely states and asking for written submission from the public at large

67. What was the ‘privy purse’ in the context of the history of Modern India?

(a) A purse given privately by one organisation to another

(b)A purse given by the government of India to dignitaries for service rendered

(c) A grant given by the Government of India  to the erstwhile Princes of India

(d) A gift given by an erstwhile Prince of India to the Government of India.

68. Which one among the following was not a possible reason for the success of Nadir Shah’s  military campaign in Delhi?

(a) Work Mughal Emperor

(b) Lack of strong defence in the North-West Frontier

(c)  Late preparation for the defence of Delhi

(d) Use of superior military technology by the invading army

69. Which one among the following was not true about the Kerala king Martanda Varma?

(a) He ruled over Travancore

(b) He subdued the feudatories

(c) He gave heavy bribes to the European officers to maintain peace

(d) He organised a strong modern army

70. Which of the following was/were reason/reasons for the success of European trading companies in South India during the 17^th Century?

1. The presence of the Mughals in the south was not as much as in the north.

2. The Vijaya Nagar kingdom had been overthrown in the late 16^th Century.

3. The south had many small and weak states.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:            

(a)1,2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only  (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 only

71.  Which one among the following was a reason for which the French could not succeed in India in the 18^th Century?

(a) They sided with the weak Indian sides such as Chanda Sahib and Muzafar Jang.  

(b) Dupleix was called back at a crucial time

(c) they conspired against the Indian powers

(d) Their trading company was heavily dependent on the French Government.

72. Which one of the following was the result of the First Anglo-Maratha War of 1775-82?

(a) The British won the war

(b) The Marathas won the war

(c) There was no victory for either side

(d) It helped Hyder Ali to gather strength because the British and Marathas were engaged in a mutual war

73. Which one among the following  is correct about  the Doctrine of Lapse?

(a) It did not allow the Indian rulers to adopt any heir

(b) It did not allow an adopted heir to rule a state after the death of the ruler

(c) It made the annexation of Indian state compulsory after the death of a ruler

(d) It made the annexation of Indian state compulsory if the adoption of heir had not been approved by the British authorities

74. In 1856 Awadh would not have been annexed with the British Empire if the Nawab of Awadh had

(a) allied with the British

(b) not refused to introduce reforms as suggested by the British

(c) fought against the British

(d) a natural heir

75.  Which of the statements given below about Vivekananda are correct?

1. He believed that Vedanta was fully rational

2. He criticized his countrymen for having lost touch with the outside world.

3.He condemned the caste system.

4. He considered the Veda to be infallible.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)1,2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c)1, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 2 only

76. Consider the following information and identify from the code given below the legendary Hollywood actress who is also remembered as a champion for a number of charitable causes, notably the fight against AIDS:

She appeared in more than 50 films, and was three Oscars including one for performance in ‘Butterfield 8’ and another for ‘Who’s Afraid of Virginia Woolf?’ The London-born actress was a star at age 12, a bride and a divorce at 18, a screen goddess at 19 and a widow at 26.

Code:

(a) Ingrid Bergman

(b) Elizabeth Taylor

(c) Katharine Hepburn

(d) Nicole Kidman

77. Consider the following statements:

1. National cadet corps (NCC) is a pre-independence organization.

2. The motto of NCC is ‘Unity and discipline’.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1only (b) 2oonly (c) Both 1 and 2  (d) Neither 1 nor 2

78. On 15^th March 2011, foreign ministers of G-8 nations failed to reach an agreement on military action against Libya because:

1. Germany and Russia blocked flight restrictions sought by Britain and France

2. French attempt for a no-fly zone could not reach consensus

3. United nations has been non-supportive for any kind of action against Libya

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)1,2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only  (c)2 and 3 only (d) 1 only

79. South Pacific island nation Samoa, positioned to the east of the International Date Line, on May 2011 decided to forego a day and shift to the time zone on its west. The reason for this shifting is to

(a) facilitate smooth internal administration throughout the country

(b) attain political stability in the country

(c) facilitate  trade with Australia and New Zealand.

(d) promote tourism industry in the country

80. Which of the following changes were brought in Nepal after the end of monarchy/

1. The Singha Durbar (Lion Palace) has become official seat of government of Nepal

2.Narayanhity royal Palace has been turned into a public museum.

3.King’s portrait in Nepalese banknotes, was replaced by the image of Pashupatinath Temple.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)1,2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only  (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 only

81.  Which of the following changes have been brought in Egypt after the recent popular uprising that overthrew President Hosni Mubarak ?

1. Adopting a new constitution.

2. Reducing presidential term from 6 years to 4 years

3. Limiting the president to two terms.

4. Presidential candidate must be over 40 years.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)1, and 2  (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 3  and 4 only

82. Which of the following statements regarding Global-INK (Indian Network of Knowledge) is not correct?

(a) It is an ICT (Information and communication Technology) enabled platform for next generation knowledge management

(b) The network will serve as a strategic ‘virtual think tank’

(c) The outcome target will be the germination of ideas on development and articulating and mapping out solutions through innovation and technological interventions

(d)  The network is being developed by Reliance communication

83. In the era of globalisation, international migration is one of the biggest challenges of 21^st century. To deal with this, which of the following steps have been taken by the Government of India?

1. Establishment of 24/7 helpline to provide information to jobseekers.

2. Undertaking steps to ratify the UN Convention on Transnational Organisation crime and its protocols.

3. Implementing e-Governance in emigration management to detect instances of misrepresentation, forgery,  etc. through real time validation of information on public-private partnership basis.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)1,2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only  (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only

84.  Which one of the following teams won the maximum number of gold medals in the 34^th National Games 2011 held in Jharkhand?

(a) Manipur (b) Services (c) Haryana  (d) Maharashtra

85. Who among the following was chosen for the Dadasaheb Phalke Award for the year 2010?

(a) K.Balachander

(b) D.Ramanaidu

(c) V.K. Murthy

(d) Adoor Gopalakrishnan

86. Consider the following statements about National Knowledge Commission:

1. It is an advisory body to the Prime Minister constituted as per the provisions of the constitution of India.

2. Mr. Sam pitroda is the chairman of the Commission.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only  (b)  2 only  (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

87. The ‘Shillong Declaration’, in news recently, was on

(a) food security act

(b)  Right to Education Act

(c) Prevention of corruption act

(d) Right to Information act

88.  In the case of nuclear disaster, which of the following options for cooling the nuclear reactors may be adopted?

1. Pumping of water to the reactors.

2. Use of boric acid.

3. taking out the fuel rods and keeping them in a cooling pond.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:   

(a)1,2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only  (c) 1 and  3 only (d) 3 only

89.  Consider the following statements about Euthanasia:

1. It refers to the practice of ending the life in a manner which relieves pain and suffering

2. In the case involving Aruna shanbaug, the Supreme Court of India has suggested that passive Euthanasia be legalised through the Supreme Court monitored mechanism only.

3. Active voluntary Euthanasia is legal in Belgium, Luxembourg and the Netherlands.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1,2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only  (c) 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only

90. Which one among the following is not an important factor of climate of an area?

(a) Latitude (b) Longitude (c) Altitude (d) Distance from the sea

91. The broken hills famous for zinc and lead are located in

(a) Turkey (b) France (c) Germany  (d) Australia

92.  Kanha National Park belongs to which one among the  following biogeographical areas in the world?

(a) Tropical sub-humid Forests

(b) Tropical Humid Forests

(c) Tropical dry Forests

(d) Tropical Moist Forests

93. ‘EI Nino’ associated with the formation of the South West Monsoon of India is

(a)  an abnormally warm ocean current

(b) a periodic warm air mass

(c) a periodic warm wind

(d) a periodic law pressure centre

94. The thermal equator is found

(a) at the equator

(b) south of the geographical equator

(c) north of the geographical equator

(d) at the Tropic of Cancer

95. A nautical mile is equal to

(a) 5060 feet (b) 5280 feet  (c) 6060 feet (d) 6080 feet

96. Horse latitudes lie within the atmospheric pressure belts of

(a) Polar high (b) Equatorial low (c) Sub-tropical high (d) Sub-polar low

97. The warm and dry winds that blow down the steep valleys in Japan are called

(a) Zonda (b) Yamo  (c) Tramontanc  (d) Santa Ana

98. Which of the following statements regarding red soils of India is/are correct?

1. The colour of the soil is red due to ferric oxide content.

2. Red soils are rich in lime, humus and potash.

3. They are porous and have friable structure.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:   

(a)1 only (b) 1 and 3 only  (c)2 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3

99.  According to the Census 2011, which one among the following Union Territories has the least population?

(a) Daman and Diu

(b) Dadra and Nagar Haveli

(c) Lakshadweep

(d) Puducherry

100. Arrange the following oil refineries of  India from west to east:

1. Koyali 2. Bongalgaon 3. Mathura 4. Haldia

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)1-2 -3-4 (b) 1-3-4- 2 (c)3-1-2-4 (d)2-4-3-1

  ANSWERS

61.(b) 62.(c) 63.(a) 64.(b) 65.(c) 66.(d) 67.(c) 68.(d) 69.(c) 70.(c) 71.(b) 72.(c) 73.(d) 74.(a) 75.(c) 76.(b) 77.(b) 78.(b) 79.(c) 80.(b) 81.(b) 82.(d) 83.(a) 84.(b) 85.(a) 86.(b) 87.(d) 88.(b) 89.(b) 90.(b) 91.(d) 92.(d) 93.(a) 94.(c) 95.(d) 96.(c) 97.(b) 98.(b) 99.(c) 100.(b)